AED Economics 200
Principles of Food and Resource Economics
Spring 2004
 

First Midterm Examination from 2004
Second Midterm Examination from 2004
 

Write your name in the upper right-hand corner of this page.  The answer to each question should be circled clearly.
 

 

1. Choice is fundamentally a consequence of

a.       living in a world where there are both goods and bads.

b.       how wealthy one is.

c.       scarcity.

d.       opportunity cost.
 

2. The opportunity cost of attending college is

a.       the money one spends on college tuition, books, and so forth.

b.       the highest valued alternative one forfeits to attend college.

c.       the least valued alternative one forfeits to attend college.

d.       equal to the salary one will earn when one graduates from college.
 

3. The condition in an economy that makes a “rationing device” a necessity is the fact that

a.       the economy is organized around free markets.

b.       the economy is centrally planned by the government.

c.       scarcity exists.

d.       there are fewer types of goods than there are people in the economy.
 

4. Scarcity means

a.       wants are greater than the limited resources available to satisfy these wants.

b.       wants are less than the limited resources available to satisfy these wants.

c.       resources are infinite.

d.       wants are limited.

e.       both c and d
 

5. Which of the following is an example of the fallacy of composition?

a.       Juan washed his car in the morning and it rained in the afternoon, which means Juan’s washing his car caused it to rain.

b.       Ted gets home from work faster by driving through the city streets at 5:00 p.m. rather than taking the freeway, which means that everyone will get home faster by driving through the city streets at 5:00 p.m. rather than taking the freeway.

c.       Maria hit her head on the cabinet door and now has a lump on her head at the point of impact, which means the blow to the head caused the lump.

d.       Joan wished her brother bad luck during an argument last night and he wrecked his car today, which means Joan’s wishing her brother bad luck caused him to wreck his car.

 

6. What does it mean if a person makes a “decision at the margin”?
 

a.       The person compares additional benefits and additional costs when deciding what to do.

b.       The person weighs the good against the bad and then decides what to do.

c.       The person is more likely to say yes than to say no.

d.       The person compares marginal benefits and total costs and then decides what to do.

e.       The person makes a decision based on a condition.
 

7. Both country 1 and country 2 are located on their respective PPF, but country 1 produces twice the output that country 2 produces. It follows that

a.       country 1’s PPF lies further to the right than country 2’s PPF.

b.       country 1 has a smaller population than country 2.

c.       country 1 has a bigger population than country 2.

d.       country 1 practices capitalism and country 2 practices socialism.

e.       none of the above
 

8. If the price a buyer pays for a good is $40 and the maximum price she would be willing and able to pay is $43, then __________ is __________.

a.       producers’ surplus; $83

b.       consumers’ surplus; $83

c.       consumers’ surplus; $3

d.       producers’ surplus; $3

e.       consumers’ surplus; $40
 

9. Points inside (or below) the PPF are

a.       unattainable.

b.       attainable and efficient.

c.       attainable but inefficient.

d.       attainable and neither efficient nor inefficient.
 

10.   Consider two points on the PPF:  point A, at which there are 50 oranges and 100 apricots, and point B, at which there are 51 oranges and 98 apricots. If the economy is currently at point B, the opportunity cost of moving to point A is

a.       2 apricots.

b.       1 orange.

c.       98 apricots.

d.       3 oranges.
 

11.   Consider two straight-line PPFs. They have the same vertical intercept, but curve I is flatter than curve II. The opportunity cost of producing the good on the horizontal axis

a.       is greater along curve I.

b.       is greater along curve II.

c.       is the same along both curves.

d.       cannot be compared for the two curves without more information.
 

12.   Which of the following is an illustration of the law of increasing opportunity costs?

a.       As more cars are produced, the opportunity cost of each additional car is greater than for the preceding unit.

b.       As more cars are produced, the opportunity cost of each additional car is less than for the preceding unit.

c.       As more cars are produced, the opportunity cost of each additional car is the same as for the preceding unit.

d.       People pay higher prices for cars the higher the costs of producing cars.

 

13.   Economic growth causes the PPF to

a.       shift inward.

b.       shift outward.

c.       remain constant.

d.       go from a straight line to a curve.

 

14.   In the United States, farming today is __________ productive compared to ninety years ago, resulting in there being __________ farmers today than at the turn of the century.

a.       about as; fewer

b.       about as; more

c.       much more; fewer

d.       much more; more
 

15.   Technological __________ in American agriculture has __________ other types of employment.

a.       improvement; drawn labor away from

b.       improvement; released labor to go to

c.       stagnation; drawn labor away from

d.       stagnation; released labor to go to
 

16.   In an eight-hour day, Andy can produce either 24 loaves of bread or 8 pounds of butter. In an eight-hour day, John can produce either 8 loaves of bread or 8 pounds of butter. The opportunity cost of producing 1 pound of butter is

a.       1/3 hour for Andy and 1 hour for John.

b.       1 hour for Andy and 1 hour for John.

c.       3 loaves of bread for Andy and 1 loaf of bread for John.

d.       1/3 loaves of bread for Andy and 1 loaf of bread for John.

e.       none of the above
 

17.   If the law of increasing opportunity costs is operable, and currently the opportunity cost of producing the 101st unit of good X is 5Y, then the opportunity cost of producing the 201st unit of good is X is likely to be

a.       less than 5Y.

b.       more than 1/5Y but less than 5Y.

c.       more than 5Y

d.       less than 1/5Y but more than zero.

e.       none of the above
 

18.   At a price of $15, Marta buys 3 CD’s per month.  When the price increases to $20, Marta buys 2 CD’s per month.  Leah says that Marta’s demand for CD’s has decreased.  Is Leah correct?

a.       Yes, Leah is correct.

b.       No, Leah is incorrect.  Marta’s demand has increased.

c.       No, Leah is incorrect.  Marta’s quantity demanded has decreased, but her demand has stayed the same.

d.       No, Leah is incorrect.  Marta’s quantity demanded has increased, but her demand has stayed the same.

e.       No, Leah is incorrect.  Marta’s quantity demanded has decreased and her demand has increased.

 

19.  If an increase in income results in an increase in the demand for chicken, then chicken is

a.       a neutral good.

b.       a luxury good.

c.       a normal good.

d.       an inferior good.
 

20.   A decrease in the number of buyers in an area will result in a

a.       movement up the demand curve.

b.       movement down the demand curve.

c.       leftward shift in the demand curve.

d.       rightward shift in the demand curve.
 

21.   As the price of good X rises, the demand for good Y falls. Therefore, goods X and Y are

a.       substitutes.

b.       normal goods.

c.       complements.

d.       inferior goods.

e.       none of the above
 

22.   An advance in technology causes

a.       a rightward shift in the supply curve.

b.       a leftward shift in the supply curve.

c.       the supply curve to go from upward sloping to vertical.

d.       the supply curve to go from vertical to upward sloping.
 

23.   At a price for which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied, a __________ is experienced, which pushes the price __________ toward its equilibrium value.

a.       surplus; downward

b.       surplus; upward

c.       shortage; downward

d.       shortage; upward
 

24.   If demand falls by a greater amount than supply falls, then equilibrium price __________ and equilibrium quantity __________.

a.       rises; rises                    

b.       rises; falls

c.       falls; rises

d.       falls; falls

   

 
  1. 1. Refer to Exhibit C-4, at the top of this page. A price of $6 in the market will result in a
    a.       shortage of 10 units.
    b.       surplus of 10 units.
    c.       surplus of 5 units.
    d.       shortage of 5 units.
     

  2. 2. Refer again to Exhibit C-4. A price of $2 in the market will result in a
    a.       shortage of 10 units.
    b.       surplus of 10 units.
    c.       surplus of 5 units.
    d.       shortage of 5 units.
     

  3. 3. Refer once more to Exhibit C-4. If this is a competitive market, price and quantity will gravitate toward
    a.       $6 and 10 units, respectively.
    b.       $6 and 20 units, respectively.
    c.       $4 and 15 units, respectively.
    d.       $2 and 15 units, respectively.

 

Text Box: Price (dollars)

 
  1. Refer to Exhibit C-5, at the top of this page. In the market shown,
    a.       point W shows the new equilibrium position.
    b.       the new equilibrium price and quantity are both greater than originally.
    c.       an increase in demand has been more than offset by an increase in supply.
    d.       the equilibrium position has shifted from W to V.
     

  2. Refer again to Exhibit 3-5. In the market shown, the rightward shift in supply may have been caused by
    a.       a decline in the number of buyers in the market.
    b.       a decline in the price of a substitute good.
    c.       a decrease in income (assuming the good is a normal good).
    d.       none of the above
     

  3. Suppose the government establishes a price floor on a good above its equilibrium price. It can be said that at the price floor,
    a.       although sellers are selling all of the product that they desire at this price, the consumers are not able to buy all that they desire.
    b.       although consumers are purchasing all of the product that they desire at this price, the sellers are not selling all that they desire.
    c.       both sellers and buyers are satisfied with the quantity that is being exchanged.
    d.       both sellers and buyers are exchanging the equilibrium quantity of this good.
    e.       b and d

     

  4. An economic concept that explains why Disneyland charges less for the second day of admission than for the first day is
    a.       the law of supply.
    b.       the law of demand.
    c.       the law of diminishing marginal utility.
    d.       the law of diminishing returns.
    e.       none of the above
     

  5. Which of the following pairs of goods would be most likely to be substitutes?
    a.       pasta and pasta sauce
    b.       butter and margarine
    c.       chips and salsa
    d.       tires and automobiles
    e.
       all of the above

 

Exhibit 4.4 wouldn't reproduce for this web page - sorry

  1. Refer to Exhibit 4-4 (top of this page), which shows supply and demand for freeway space at both 8 a.m. and 11 p.m. At a zero money price, there is a ________ of freeway space at 8 a.m. and ________ at 11 p.m.
    a.       shortage; a surplus
    b.       surplus; a shortage
    c.       surplus; equilibrium
    d.       shortage; equilibrium
     

  2. Refer again to Exhibit 4-4, which shows supply and demand for freeway space at both 8 a.m. and 11 p.m. Which toll creates equilibrium at 8 a.m.?
    a.       P2
    b.       P1
    c.       0
    d.      It is not constant.
     

  3. Refer once more to Exhibit 4-4, which shows supply and demand for freeway space at both 8 a.m. and 11 p.m. A toll of P1 creates __________ at 8 a.m. and __________ at 11 p.m.
    a.       a shortage; a surplus
    b.       a surplus; a shortage
    c.       equilibrium; a surplus
    d.       a shortage; equilibrium

 
 
  1. Refer to Exhibit 4-7, at the top of this page.  The number of persons who want to work at the minimum wage is
    a.       N3.
    b.       N1.
    c.       N2.
    d.       N2 – N1.
     

  2. Refer again to Exhibit 4-7.  How many fewer persons work in the unskilled labor market at the minimum wage (WM) than at the equilibrium wage (W1)?
    a.       N2 – Npersons
    b.       N1 – Npersons
    c.       N2 – N3 persons
    d.       Npersons
    e.       none of the above
     

  3. Refer yet again to Exhibit 4-7.  How many persons work at the minimum wage?
    a.       N2
    b.       N1
    c.       N3
    d.       N+ N3
     

  4. If the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price, demand is
    a.       inelastic.
    b.       unit elastic.
    c.       elastic.
    d.       perfectly inelastic.
     

  5. If quantity demanded is completely unresponsive to changes in price, demand is
    a.       inelastic.
    b.       unit elastic.
    c.       elastic.
    d.       perfectly elastic.
    e.       perfectly inelastic.
     

  6. Income elasticity of demand for a normal good is
    a.       less than zero.
    b.       greater than zero.
    c.       equal to zero.
    d.      none of the above
     

  7. An inferior good is
    a.       any good that consumers think is of low quality.
    b.       a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases.
    c.       a good for which the demand rises as income falls.
    d.       a good for which the demand rises as income rises.
    e.       any good that a producer cannot sell a large quantity of, even at a low price.
     

  8. Suppose the marginal utility (MU) of paperback books is 40 utils and each costs $4 while the MU of video movies is 50 utils and each rents for $4. If you consume one movie and one book per week, are you attaining consumer equilibrium?
    a.       Yes, so there is no need to change.
    b.       No. You need to buy more books and rent fewer videos.
    c.       No. You need to rent more videos and buy fewer books.
    d.       There is not enough information to answer the question.
     

  9. Suppose Valerie is consuming lipstick (L) and eye shadow (E) and nothing else. MUL = 24 and MUE = 20. The price of eye shadow is $5, and the price of lipstick is $4. What should Valerie do?
    a.       Consume more eye shadow and less lipstick.
    b.       Consume more lipstick and less eye shadow.
    c.       Consume less of both.
    d.       Consume more of both.
    e.       Not change her consumption of either good.
     

  10. If the total utilities corresponding to the first five units of a good consumed are 10, 15, 19, 22, and 24, respectively, what is the marginal utility of the fourth unit?
    a.       22
    b.       5
    c.       4.5
    d.       4
    e.       3

 
 
  1. Refer to Exhibit Q-8, at the top of this page. The consumer redirected her purchases from point A to point B as a result of
    a.       a decrease in the price of X.
    b.       a decrease in the price of Y.
    c.       an increase in money income.
    d.       a change in preferences toward X and away from Y.
    e.       none of the above
     

  2. Refer again to Exhibit Q-8. The marginal rate of substitution at point B is __________ the marginal rate of substitution at point A.
    a.       greater than
    b.       equal to
    c.       less than
    d.      incapable of being compared with
     

  3. Refer to Exhibit Q-8. The total utility the consumer receives at point B is __________ the total utility she receives at point A.
    a.       less than
    b.       equal to
    c.       greater than
    d.       any of the above depending on her total income
     

  4. Unlimited liability is one of the disadvantages of
    a.       partnerships.
    b.       corporations.
    c.       proprietorships.
    d.       partnerships and proprietorships.
     

  5. A proprietorship
    a.       is a form of business with two or more co-owners.
    b.       is relatively easy to organize.
    c.       faces double taxation of profits.
    d.       can dissolve as the result of a partner’s death or withdrawal from the firm.

 

Answers

 

1  c

2  b

3  c

4  a

5  b

6  a

7  a

8  c

9  c

10  b

11  b

12  a

13  b

14  c

15  b

16  c

17  c

18  c

19  c

20  c

21  c

22  a

23  d

24  d

25  b

26  a

27  c

28  c

29  d

30  b

31  c

32  b

33  d

34  a

35  a

36  c

37  b

38  c

39  c

40  e

41  b

42  c

43  c

44  b

45  e

46  a

47  c

48  c

49  d

50  b

 

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